Date:
Wed, 13 Oct 2004 10:05:23 +0100
From:
Andrew Dickinson
Subject:
Vicarious liability for intentional torts
That
was not a confusion present in my mind, and I am sorry if I did
not express my posting clearly enough. Whether the agent is liable
to the representee cannot, of course, depend on whether he had actual
or ostensible authority to represent his principal (the reverse
fallacy having been rejected in Standard
Chartered Bank v. Pakistan International Shipping Corporation).
My suggestion, however, is that different considerations for imposing
vicarious liability may apply to torts involving representation
from other torts because it would not be just to impose vicarious
liability for, e.g., a fraudulent representation in circumstances
where the representee did not place reliance upon the agent's authority
to make representations. Another suggested reason for the distinction
(preferred by Bowstead & Reynolds, para. 8-180) is that the rule
in Armagas "sets true limits on the scope of employment
in respect of torts of misrepresentation: the dealings which the
servant is employed to enter into are in this respect to be identified
with respect to his authority".
Andrew
-----Original
Message-----
From: Robert Stevens
Sent: 13 October 2004 09:58
Subject: Re: FWD: ODG: Re: Vicarious liability for intentional
torts
Aren't
fraud and other torts involving representation different, in
that they involve reliance as an essential element of the cause
of action and it is not appropriate ("just", "fair" or whatever)
to impose vicarious liability in circumstances where the claimant
has not also relied on the agent's ostensible authority to represent
the principal?
No
they are not. This is confusing primary and secondary liability.
If we want to hold a principal primarily liable for a misrepresentation
made by an agent, the statement must be attributed to the principal.
This requires that the agent has actual or apparent authority
to make the statement. If I authorise a statement knowing it to
be untrue I will be liable in deceit, regardless of whether the
person who actually speaks is wholly innocent. My liability is
primary, not vicarious. If the agent has no actual or apparent
authority, any reliance upon the statement is not reliance upon
a statement made by me.
Whether
an employer can be vicariously liable for the torts of his employee
is a different question from whether a statement of an agent can
be attributed to his principal. For an employer to be vicariously
liable it is unnecessary for the employer to have made the statement,
anymore than it is necessary for the employer of a bouncer to
have personally stabbed someone in order to be vicariously liable.
The question is whether it is within the scope of the employee's
employment.
There
are two rules of attribution in play: attribution of the torts
of employees to the employer and attribution of the statements
of an agent to the principal.
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