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Date: Wed, 13 Oct 2004 09:09:18 -0400

From: Jason Neyers

Subject: Vicarious liability for intentional torts

 

Dear Harold:

Thanks for the clarifications.

My point really is this: If the PC is supposed to be applying the common law of Jamaica (and there is no authoritative statement of that law) why do their Lordships assume that the common law of Jamaica should follow that of England as opposed to that of Australia. In my mind, such a determination at least requires positive argument as to why the law of England is to be preferred to that of Australia, especially when the law of Australia better fits the cases (since as Robert notes, Lister is not readily reconcilable with the Ocean Frost whereas the reasoning of the majority in Lepore clearly is).

 

Cheers,

Harold Luntz wrote:

This is just a quick response to Jason's questions - a full response would probably require an article-length reply. I certainly don't want to discourage other replies and hope the questions will stimulate some debate. I will make a number of points without listing them under (a) and (b) of Jason's questions.

1. Lepore is an unfortunate decision for at least two reasons. First, like all too many Australian High Court cases, the judges differed among themselves on almost every aspect of the case and gave very little guidance to other courts. Secondly, some of them dismissed Bazley and Lister too readily (despite some lesser disagreement there among the Lords) and took much too narrow a view of Deatons v Flew, particularly in failing to recognise social changes since then. May I commend to colleagues the criticism of the decision in J Wangmann, 'Liability for Institutional Child Sexual Assault: Where Does Lepore Leave Australia?' (2004) 28 MULR 169 (with which I personally had nothing to do)?

2. The role of the PC is presumably to apply the law of the jurisdiction from which the appeal came. As much as we may deplore it, there is no longer a single, unified common law. Australia has undoubtedly gone its own way. Only yesterday I saw Starks v RSM Security Pty Ltd [2004] NSWCA 351 (28 September 2004), in which the employer (but not the club) was held vicariously liable for an intentional assault by a bouncer. Only Australian cases were cited and no reference was made to Mattis v Pollock (trading as Flamingos Nightclub) [2003] EWCA Civ 887 (1 July 2003); [2003] 1 WLR 2158, Pet dismissed [2003] 1 WLR 2838, or any of the other cases we have been discussing. Instead, the Salmond-test was applied.

3. Vicarious liability is a form of strict liability and whatever justifications there are for it can't be made to fit within a theory of no liability without fault. It has proved satisfactory as a loss-distribution mechanism for well over a century and I don't want to see it chipped away at, particularly at a time when governments (and the people who elect them - you can probably tell I'm still smarting from Saturday's election) are becoming less compassionate.

4. Even if there are differences between children and fur coats and mortgages, holding that a school teacher - especially one at a one-teacher school - is acting within the scope of the authority when sexually abusing the children fits with Morris v Martin and Lloyd v Grace Smith, whereas those cases show that providing an opportunity to another employee (like the gardener example from Lister) is not within the scope.

I hope that will get people emailing, unlike my question on causation, which drew stony silence except for some off-list comments from one colleague.


--
Jason Neyers
January Term Director
Assistant Professor of Law
Faculty of Law
University of Western Ontario
N6A 3K7
(519) 661-2111 x. 88435

 

 


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