Date:
Wed, 18 Jan 2006 13:57:41 +0200
From:
Daniel Friedmann
Subject:
Illegal contracts and restitution
The
difference between the case in which A pays B to hire C to kill
A (or simply A pays B to kill A) and that in which and A pays B
to kill C, is that in the latter category C (the intended victim)
may have a right in restitution to recover the money paid to B for
this purpose. I discussed a similar situation in 80 Columbia L.
Rev. 504, 556 (1980). The case in which A pays B to kill A (or to
hire C to do it) is one of attempted suicide.
Andrew
Burrows rightly points out the possibility that the parties are
not in pari delicto. This seems at least prima facie the situation,
in which case restitution to A should be granted even if B committed
the illegal act (its commission cannot be regarded as consideration
that precludes restitution cf. Hermann v. Charlesworth).
Daniel
Friedmann
-----
Original Message -----
From: "Duncan Sheehan (LAW)"
To: "'Hector MacQueen'"; "'Jason Neyers'"
Sent: Wednesday, January 18, 2006 11:42 AM
Subject: ODG: RE: Illegal contracts and restitution
There
are a number of possibilities, leaving aside the criminal aspect
for the moment - what I know about criminal law can be written on
the back of a postage stamp.
A
pays B to hire C to kill A. I'm not sure that in essence there can
be a distinction made between that case and A pays B to kill C,
or even A pays B to kill B. Indeed the Times said at one point that
in desperation A asked B to do the deed himself. The reason we don't
allow hitmen to succeed is that we value human life. I would think
that all these contracts were illegal (and the Times utterly wrong!).
Illegal contracts are not (at least in English law; I know nothing
about Scots law) monolithic things - all with the same effects,
but specific performance would be out of the question. I would think
damages too; how are we supposed to put A in the position he would
have been in had the contract been carried? I don't see how money
can put you in the equivalent position of being dead.
As
for restitution for failure of consideration, there's a kink on
the facts in the Times. A was apparently depressive, hence the desire
to be killed. If A was in fact mentally ill, that raises the question
whether B took advantage (undue influence as well as fraud?). There's
also a capacity question isn't there - that doesn't impact on the
illegality as such but may well matter. We know that property can
pass under an illegal contract, so all other things being equal
property in the money passes to B. If A is incapax, and completely
doolally, that transfer may be void, which would presumably give
A a better claim. This is more likely if we're talking really large
amounts, and in fact according to the Times we're talking tens of
thousands of pounds. I wonder whether on any facts that are likely
to arise you need to rescind for fraud.
From
the other perspective - the recipient - I think Hector MacQueen
must be right.
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