Date:
Thu, 2 Feb 2006 16:38:33 +0200
From:
Daniel Friedmann
Subject:
Two Questions
In
Lipkin Gorman the money was not paid by the plaintiffs.
Rather it was taken by the solicitor and transferred to the defendant.
Indeed ordinarily the main difference between the so-called autonomous
unjust enrichment and enrichment by wrong (which in fact is no difference
at all) is that in autonomous unjust enrichment the plaintiff transfers
money or property (sometimes services) to the defendant while in
enrichment by wrong the defendant simply takes it. Your example
of an employee who deliberately trespasses on the claimant's land
in a way which results in an enormous (financial) consequential
gain for his employer (but not for him) differs from Lipkin
Gorman with regards to the type of entitlement which was taken
from the claimant. In Lipkin Gorman it was money in the
bank (actually chose in action). In your example it is merely the
temporary use of the land. This need not make a difference in the
applicable principles (though it may create a difference with regard
to tracing). Thus, suppose that E is employed by D. D asks E to
carry goods in a truck to a market that is being held in another
town. E makes a shortcut by trespassing on the claimant’s
land and thus arrives early. D will no doubt be liable for the unauthorized
use of the claimant’s land (as for restitution let us disregard
the difficulties arising from Phillips v. Homfray). This
liability for “taking” the use of the plaintiff’s
land does not differ in principle from that imposed for the taking
of the claimant’s money (or property) and transferring it
to D (except that the technique of tracing may not be available
in the case of "taking" merely the use of property). Your
question may relate to the measure of recovery: is it merely the
value of the use (market price) or can the claimant sue for the
recovery of profits made by D on the market (or at least those extra
profits he made by arriving early)?
It
is not clear if such liability would have been imposed had the trespass
been committed by D himself. Rules on the measure of recovery are
very flexible and there may be even a question of remoteness. But
I suspect that if D himself would have been liable for profits had
he acted personally, he would also be similarly liable where the
act was done by his employee. As for cases I believe that it is
not difficult to find American decisions and maybe also English
cases in which liability for appropriation of another's interest
(usually liability for wrongs) has been imposed on corporations.
In practically all of them the act was done by either an employee
or an official of the corporation. See eg Sheldon v. Metro-Goldwyn
Pictures Corp. and Frank Music Corp. v. Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer
discussed in 79 Texas L. Rev. at 1889-1890 (recovery of part of
the profits for appropriation of copyright).
Dan
-----
Original Message -----
From: "Robert Stevens"
To: "Daniel Friedmann"
Sent: Thursday, February 02, 2006 11:57 AM
Subject: ODG: Re: Two Questions
The
answer of 'yes' is what I am seeking to prove, and I completely
agree with most of this analysis. However, the examples concern
cases where the claimant is seeking to recover back money he has
paid to the claimant. Some would say that these are examples of
claims in (autonomous - unhelpful in my view) unjust enrichment.
So, regardless of the view we take of the "parasitic theory"
these cases are readily explicable.
However
are there any cases where the gain of the employer does not correspond
with a (financial) loss to the claimant? So, if an employee deliberately
trespasses on the claimant's land in a way which results in an enormous
(financial) consequential gain for his employer (but not for him)
what is the law?
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