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Date: Thu, 2 Feb 2006 16:38:33 +0200

From: Daniel Friedmann

Subject: Two Questions

 

In Lipkin Gorman the money was not paid by the plaintiffs. Rather it was taken by the solicitor and transferred to the defendant. Indeed ordinarily the main difference between the so-called autonomous unjust enrichment and enrichment by wrong (which in fact is no difference at all) is that in autonomous unjust enrichment the plaintiff transfers money or property (sometimes services) to the defendant while in enrichment by wrong the defendant simply takes it. Your example of an employee who deliberately trespasses on the claimant's land in a way which results in an enormous (financial) consequential gain for his employer (but not for him) differs from Lipkin Gorman with regards to the type of entitlement which was taken from the claimant. In Lipkin Gorman it was money in the bank (actually chose in action). In your example it is merely the temporary use of the land. This need not make a difference in the applicable principles (though it may create a difference with regard to tracing). Thus, suppose that E is employed by D. D asks E to carry goods in a truck to a market that is being held in another town. E makes a shortcut by trespassing on the claimant’s land and thus arrives early. D will no doubt be liable for the unauthorized use of the claimant’s land (as for restitution let us disregard the difficulties arising from Phillips v. Homfray). This liability for “taking” the use of the plaintiff’s land does not differ in principle from that imposed for the taking of the claimant’s money (or property) and transferring it to D (except that the technique of tracing may not be available in the case of "taking" merely the use of property). Your question may relate to the measure of recovery: is it merely the value of the use (market price) or can the claimant sue for the recovery of profits made by D on the market (or at least those extra profits he made by arriving early)?

It is not clear if such liability would have been imposed had the trespass been committed by D himself. Rules on the measure of recovery are very flexible and there may be even a question of remoteness. But I suspect that if D himself would have been liable for profits had he acted personally, he would also be similarly liable where the act was done by his employee. As for cases I believe that it is not difficult to find American decisions and maybe also English cases in which liability for appropriation of another's interest (usually liability for wrongs) has been imposed on corporations. In practically all of them the act was done by either an employee or an official of the corporation. See eg Sheldon v. Metro-Goldwyn Pictures Corp. and Frank Music Corp. v. Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer discussed in 79 Texas L. Rev. at 1889-1890 (recovery of part of the profits for appropriation of copyright).

 

Dan

----- Original Message -----
From: "Robert Stevens"
To: "Daniel Friedmann"
Sent: Thursday, February 02, 2006 11:57 AM
Subject: ODG: Re: Two Questions

The answer of 'yes' is what I am seeking to prove, and I completely agree with most of this analysis. However, the examples concern cases where the claimant is seeking to recover back money he has paid to the claimant. Some would say that these are examples of claims in (autonomous - unhelpful in my view) unjust enrichment. So, regardless of the view we take of the "parasitic theory" these cases are readily explicable.

However are there any cases where the gain of the employer does not correspond with a (financial) loss to the claimant? So, if an employee deliberately trespasses on the claimant's land in a way which results in an enormous (financial) consequential gain for his employer (but not for him) what is the law?

 

 


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