Date:
Wed, 21 Jun 2006 16:01:14 +0100
From:
Robert Stevens
Subject:
Economic Loss in The House of Lords
(1)
Sharp is important, as I understand it, because the English
system of land registration is predicated on its being right, or
at least it was when I studied it years ago. It is no doubt good
law, as the HL just affirmed.
(2)
We cannot see the claim in Sharp as based upon the infringement
of the claimant's property right over the house. The claim was brought
by a chargeholder who lost his charge because of the careless failure
of a clerk at a local land registry to register it. The property
right was no doubt lost if it was not registered but the failure
to register didn't infringe the property right itself. Charges over
land don't give rise to (property) rights against everyone else
that they be registered carefully.
(3)
Assumption of responsibility is not a universal solvent and it is
a bad mistake to think it is. Treating it as if it was led to it
becoming discredited. Conversely, just because a concept cannot
explain everything shouldn't lead us to conclude that it explains
nothing.
(4)
I don't know the answer to your intentionally caused hypo. It is
no doubt contempt, but are consequential losses recoverable? I know
of no case off the top of my head. You could try arguing it is the
intentional infliction of loss by unlawful means.
Robert
Stevens
Barrister
University of Oxford
Jason
Neyers writes:
Dear Colleagues:
The Commissioner case is very interesting. I wish it had
been clearer that an assumption of responsibility and reasonable
detrimental reliance were the only way to recover pure economic
losses and that White v Jones is a dead-end (being a contract
case as explained by Peter at the conference) but at least it is
a step in the right direction.
I wonder though why the Sharp case is treated as 1) being
so important; & 2) treated as a pure economic loss case since
it seems that the destruction of the plaintiff's property right
and the loss consequential on that which drives the result (Lord
Mance acknowledges as much).
I also wonder if the result would have been different if the bank
had intentionally refused to comply with the order. What do others
think about that issue? Would it be just another Bradford v.
Pickles?
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