Date:
Thu, 12 Oct 2006 12:00:33 +1000
From:
Neil Foster
Subject:
Employer's claim for injury to employee
Dear
Colleagues;
I'd
like to suggest (contrary to what seems to be the consensus here)
that the decision is not quite as right as others think. (It is
worth noting, after all, that Peter Smith J was, he says, attracted
for some time by counsel for the football club's arguments.)
In
particular I find it hard to understand why there was no contract
between the Club and the doctor. The CA rightly reject all the arguments
based on what the parties subjectively thought at the time. There
was clearly an intention to enter into legal relationships with
someone - [36]. As Rix LJ notes, arrangements for the consultation
were made by the Club rep ringing the doctor's wife (who was clearly
acting as his agent); and the doctor expected that his fees would
be paid by the insurance company BUPA who were insuring the Club,
not the player directly. There is an express request by the Club
rep that the doctor see a player. It is not complex but it seems
a straightforward and perfectly adequately expressed contract to
provide a service to the Club by doing this.
The
doctor knows his fees will be paid by the club. Is this fundamentally
different from a parent of a teenager making an appointment for
medical treatment of the child? The doctor would not try to invoice
the child.
Indeed,
the presumption that the contract was with the Club which it seems
to me is raised by the approach to the doctor by a Club rep seems
to be confirmed by the past history of the doctor treating members
of the Club and invoicing the Club - [43].
But
Rix LJ having set these matters out then in my view (with great
respect) makes a mistake by stating at [40] that since there was
no "express" contract with the Club one needs to be implied,
and the high hurdle of "necessity" is said to be needed
to be crossed - [42]. But why is there no express contract? There
was a direct conversation between the Club and the doctor's agent
making an appointment, with past history showing that the Club was
agreeing to foot the bill one way or another. Once it is acknowledged
that there is an express contract, then there is no need to apply
a test of "necessity" to spell out the terms.
The
suggestion of some sort of "collateral" contract involving
an undertaking by the Club to pay the fees (at [44]) raises, with
respect, more problems than it solves. If there was such a contract
then would not the consideration by the doctor be a promise to provide
proper medical care to the player?
And
since the only reason the Club were making these arrangements was
that they stood to benefit financially from the player's services
the damage does not seem to be too remote.
In
the end the possibility of conflict of interest between player and
club does seem to loom large as a reason for denying the existence
of a contract. But could not the view simply be taken that an implied
term of the contract between the Club and the doctor would be that
the doctor would make a fearless and independent medical decision
based on the best interests of the patient, and not automatically
defer to the Club's views? That would seem to be a better way of
resolving the problem rather than dissolving an apparently obvious
contract into nothingness.
For
the moment I make no comment on the tort claim, except to say that
there have indeed been cases in NSW where a doctor has been found
liable to pay damages to someone other than the immediate patient
in respect of damage caused to the third party which was foreseeable;
although admittedly the clearest cases do not involve mere economic
loss- see cases where careless advice about AIDS or communication
of AIDS tests are involved: BT v Oei [1999] NSWSC 1082;
Harvey v PD [2004] NSWCA 97.
The
decision in McDonald v Sydney South West Area Health Service
[2005] NSWSC 924 is probably closest- financial loss suffered by
father of child born after negligent sterilisation service provided
to de facto wife. I am aware that in the UK the cost of raising
a child in such cases is not recoverable (a view with which I agree);
in Australia such a claim at the time that the McDonald
case was filed was possible after the HC decision in Cattanach
v Melchior (2003) 215 CLR 1, but later precluded by a legislative
amendment, in NSW at any rate.
In
the interests of full disclosure I record, however, that a claim
for economic loss flowing from medical treatment failed in the somewhat
bizarre case of AAA v BBB [2005] WASC 139 - husband suffered
economic loss in his business through depression caused by marital
breakup after wife commenced an affair with medical practitioner
she had gone to see about her problems.
Regards
Neil Foster
Neil
Foster
Lecturer & LLB Program Convenor
School of Law
Faculty of Business & Law
University of Newcastle
Callaghan NSW 2308
AUSTRALIA
ph 02 4921 7430
fax 02 4921 6931
>>>
Andrew Tettenborn 11/10/06 9:37 >>>
The
English CA today quite rightly confirmed that a doctor owes a duty
to his patient & not to the latter's employer, however foreseeable.
Hence
where a football club footed the bill for one of its players to
have private treatment from a consultant and the consultant allegedly
bungled things, the club (absent a contract between it and the consultant,
not found) had no claim for its lost profits.
See
West Bromwich Albion Football Club Ltd v El-Safty [2006]
EWCA Civ 1299, upholding [2006] PNLR 18.
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