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Date: Thu, 12 Oct 2006 14:06:01 -0500

From: Geoff Mclay

Subject: Jameel

 

My brief reaction is that the English courts have recognized the silliness of the reasonableness standard in Reynolds and essentially now adopted without reference the New Zealand approach in Lange, which gave far greater scope to the journalists to determine what was "reasonable".

The question is whether respectable journalism is any more a sensible concept -- may be? Is this a Bolam standard of negligence that is differential to the particular community. Or does respectable mean published in a broadsheet ... will the Mirror (or dare I say the News of the World) get the same deference?

 

Geoff

 

-----------------------------------------------------------------

From: Jason Neyers
Sent: Thursday, October 12, 2006 12:28 PM
To: Goldberg, John
Subject: Re: ODG: Jameel

I post for Ken Oliphant:

 

Out today from the House of Lords: Jameel v Wall Street Journal Europe [2006] UKHL 44.

Held, (1) the rule entitling a trading corporation to sue in libel when it can prove no financial loss is not an unreasonable restraint on the right to publish protected by article 10 ECHR and did not, for that or any other reason, have to be revised. Baroness Hale (dissenting on this issue) would have amended the law to require the company to show that the libel was "likely to cause it financial loss".

(2) the "Reynolds" qualified privilege applying to newspaper reports of matters of public interest (or "the Reynolds public interest defence": at [46] per Lord Hoffmann) should not be withheld simply because the newspaper failed to delay publication of its allegation to enable the claimant to comment. (The paper had reported that the claimant "could not be reached for comment".)

I've only had time for a skim read, so no guarantees I've got everything correct!

One thing that struck me, though, is that the HL has yet again decided a human rights case with absolutely no mention of the argument that the Convention rights have horizontal effect attributable to the court's duty as a public body to act compatibly with those rights (HRA s 6(1) and (3)). Does anyone else find this as puzzling as I do?

 

 


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