Date:
Mon, 6 Nov 2006 08:04:16 +0000
From:
Robert Stevens
Subject:
Body parts and conversion
The
case which is relevant to my original question is the Californian
case of Moore, which Dan Friedmann also posted. None of
the others are in point, or at all surprising.
My
original question was who owns my nose if it is cut off and I do
not take possession of it? No doubt it is possible to have good
title to body parts, once severed. They are physical things. I am
sure that if I took the Peruvian shrunken heads out of the Pitt
Rivers Museum on my way to work this morning, I'd be both a thief
and committing conversion.
http://www.prm.ox.ac.uk/human.html
The
museum has prior title to me, arising from its possession. I very
much doubt whether it is necessary for the thing to have been the
subject matter of any work or labour, and suggestions to the contrary
must be dubious. English law does not determine title disputes in
this way. Possession is enough, you don't have to have worked on
the thing.
The
only interesting question doctrinally is whether I have title to
my physical self prior to its being detached, if I do not take possession
after detachment. Moore says no, but the claim in that
case succeeded on other grounds. Probably right, I'd assert, as
if possession is to be our touchstone, I am not currently in possession
of my nose. It is part of me.
Robert
Stevens
Harold
Luntz writes:
One
side issue that was briefly brought up in the discussion of defamation
and enrichment, but then dropped, might be worth some further consideration
in its own context. Michael Jones correctly wrote:
Body
parts, once detached, can be become the subject of property rights
in some circumstances. So, although there is no property in the
body of a deceased person (R v Kelly [1999] QB 621, 630)
a part of a body may acquire the character of property which can
be the subject of rights of possession and ownership where the
body part has been the subject of the application of skill such
as dissection or preservation techniques: see AB v Leeds Teaching
Hospital NHS Trust [2004] EWHC 644 at [148] where Gage J
rejected a claim by parents in relation to the retention of the
organs of children following post-mortem examinations based on
the tort of wrongful interference. The parents had no right of
burial and possession of organs lawfully removed at post-mortem
and retained, and therefore there could be no action for wrongful
interference with the body of the child (at [161]). On the other
hand if a parent, when consenting to a post-mortem, specifically
asked for the return of an organ, in certain circumstances it
might be arguable that a cause of action based on conversion exists,
but “in the absence of such a cause of action in respect
of the body of a deceased person being recognised by an English
court I am not prepared to hold that one does exist” (ibid).
He
will be aware that both Kelly and AB relied on
the bizarre Australian High Court case of Doodeward v Spence
(1908) 6 CLR 406, which was an action for detinue against a police
inspector who removed a two-headed corpse of a stillborn child from
public display. By majority, the High Court held that the statement
of claim stated a good cause of action. In Roche v Douglas as
Administrator of the Estate of Rowan (deceased) [2000] WASC
146; (2000) 22 WAR 331 a Master of the Supreme Court of Western
Australia observed that Doodeward was decided some 50 years
before Watson and Crick discovered DNA. He held that for the purposes
of rules of court a tissue sample removed from a dead body could
be treated as "property" and he could therefore order
it to be DNA tested. The issue has been further considered by the
Australian Law Reform Commission in ALRC Report 96, Essentially
Yours: The Protection of Human Genetic Information in Australia
- Chap 20. Ownership of Samples and the Human Tissue Acts.
In
the controversial decision of Moore v Regents of the University
of California 51 Cal 3d 120 (1990) the Supreme Court of California
held that a person had no action for conversion of his own body
parts excised from him, though he might have an action for breach
of fiduciary obligation in so far as the doctor exploited the part
for his own profit without consent. A good deal has been written
on this issue, as a search of the databases will reveal.
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