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RDG
online Restitution Discussion Group Archives |
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Andrew Tettenborn
wrote:
I'm still a little sceptical about Lionel's
analysis. True, there must be a restitutionary obligation in the buyer
to pay for free use, etc. But was ownership of the lorry retained in order
to secure it? In respect of that obligation, the seller looks to me like
a bog-standard unsecured creditor. Under the Art 9/PPSA system, you need figure out whether
somebody has an interest in the goods. If so, then you ask, why does he?
For what functional or economic purpose did he obtain or retain that interest?
If to secure an obligation, then the Act is triggered. Depending on whether
perfection steps have been taken, this may mean that the interest which
he kept or acquired is one on which he can now not rely. And so he may
end up as an unsecured creditor even though he retained, say, legal ownership.
If, on the other hand (and this may be what Andrew is suggesting) you
are an unsecured creditor, but along with that you happen to have an interest
in goods, and that interest was not obtained or retained for the purpose
of securing an obligation, then your ability to rely on the interest is
governed by the general law and not the PPSA. And so you would be all
right even if you had not registered.
In my own mind, if you say, why did Hallmark not transfer
ownership to Ellingsen?, the answer must be, because H wanted to be sure
of getting paid. If that is right (and there are other ways of characterising
the facts) then I think the game is over if you live in PPSA-land and
have not registered.
Jason Neyers said
Could you not say that the security interest
was retained to ensure compliance with: 1) the obligation to secure
financing; and 2) barring the fulfilment of that condition an obligation
to return the truck? (1) I am not sure there was an obligation to secure financing.
In fact I doubt that very much. And I don't think (2) will work either.
If the only reason an interest in goods is retained is to ensure the return
of the very goods, the interest is not caught by the Act. It does not
require the registration of every bailment.
Jason also said
In my opinion this is not a case for Unjust
Enrichment at all as a juristic reason, i.e. the contract, justifies
any loss / deprivation. The problem is that the majority decided that the contract
was subject to a condition precedent which was not fulfilled, so that
there was in a sense no contract governing the relationship.
There may be an analogy with "sale or return". In fact
whatever one decides for this case must govern a contract of "sale or
return." It is notorious that Canadian PPSAs are not well-integrated with
sales law, which is basically the 1893 English Act in most provinces.
If anyone is so captivated by all of this that they feel
the need to write a case note, please be in touch as I know one editor
who would like one.
Lionel
PS to Andrew: I think we are talking about what we in
North America would call a pickup truck ... a ute or a combi in different
parts of the world but surely not a lorry??
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