Of course it's just a tree.  What does it look like ?
RDG online
Restitution Discussion Group Archives
  
 
 

Restitution
front page

What's new?

Another tree!

Archive front page

1995

1996

1997

1998

1999

2000

2001

2002

2003

2004

2005

2007

2006

2008

2009

Another tree!

 
<== Previous message       Back to index       Next message ==>
Sender:
Rupert Shiers
Date:
Wed, 21 Mar 2001 09:52:08
Re:
Answers on a postcard

 

Though your first paragraph sounds right, surely the prize draw example is a different case - you've acquired (1) the right to enter the draw and (2) the car, but only sold on (2)? Whereas in the comedian situation, it's impossible on almost any realistic view - I think - to resolve what the original purchaser acquired into two elements.

 

-----Original Message-----
From: Andrew Tettenborn
Sent: 21 March 2001 09:37
Subject: Re: [RDG:] Answers on a postcard

At 14:42 20/03/01 -0500, Lionel wrote:

Here is a question which is based on a real case. It did not go to court but to a form of arbitration. I will provide details later... North American members may be familiar.

A comedian gives a live performance. The comedian is unutterably wealthy and well able to afford spontaneous acts of generosity. Near the end of the show he announces that he has not been very funny and he is going to refund the price of tickets. The modality of refund is, for the vast majority who paid for their tickets by credit card, a refund on the credit card account. The plaintiff bought his ticket at face value from the defendant, who bought it by credit card. The refund goes to the defendant. Can the plaintiff recover from the defendant?

Lionel

Assuming the comedian isn't actually in breach of contract by being unfunny, and that this is a case of pure gift, surely the answer must be No. The reason, I suggest, is that contract (in this case the contract between the original purchaser and the spectator) ousts restitution. The spectator has bought a thing of value (the right to watch the performance), which he was prepared to pay face value for. The contract remains on foot and binding. I can't see any court implying a term in it that any refunds are to be passed on.

To take the case out of this rather fantastic scenario, take a slightly more orthodox possibility. I buy a new car, at the same time entering a prize draw with the garage in which the first prize is a full refund of the price of a car bought within a given period. I sell the car on. Then I win the prize. No court in the kingdom would say that I had to account for the prize to the purchaser. He got what he paid for: there's no reason to give him any more.

Andrew

__________________________________________________________
CONFIDENTIALITY NOTICE

The contents of this e-mail are confidential to the ordinary user of the e-mail address to which it was addressed and may also be privileged. If you are not the addressee of this e-mail you may not copy, forward, disclose or otherwise use it or any part of it in any form whatsoever. If you have received this e-mail in error please e-mail the sender by replying to this message.

A list of the partners of Norton Rose, Solicitors, can be inspected at
www.nortonrose.com
__________________________________________________________



<== Previous message       Back to index       Next message ==>

" These messages are all © their authors. Nothing in them constitutes legal advice, to anyone, on any topic, least of all Restitution. Be warned that very few propositions in Restitution command universal agreement, and certainly not this one. Have a nice day! "


     
Webspace provided by UCC   »
»
»
»
»
For editorial policy, see here.
For the unedited archive, see here.
The archive editor is Steve Hedley.
only search restitution site

 
 Contact the webmaster !